Mar 9, 2014
>>> I'm curious though how the FTC, an American regulatory board has any authority to have a judgement rendered against a Canadian company. <<<
It's actually simple enough. Look at paragraphs 1-16 of the first amended complaint at
http://www.ftc.gov/sites/default/files/docume ... 0819smscmpt.pdf
The glib answer, but one that actually works in this case, is that the defendants actively solicited business in the United States, and thus were subject to the jurisdiction of US civil laws for their dealings here. Also, the Canadian government is not hostile or non-cooperative in such civil matters, unlike some other countries from which many more calls to the US originate. Except for Quebec and Louisiana, we do share the same origin of our legal systems, after all.
In theory, someone operating out of one of those otherwise hostile countries could be made subject to the same laws for the same reason -- IF you could find them AND the other government cooperated. Good luck with THAT.